Working with values of 0 and 1 (Boolean)

Question

Is

f = a'ab;

the same as

f = 1

Is this possible? I got this when I was simplifying something.

Answer 1

If that's meant to represent (and I think this is the likely case):

NOT-a AND a AND b

then, no, it's false no matter the values of a or b. That's because one of a or NOT-a is definitely false, FALSE AND anything is false and the operation is associative: (a AND b) AND c == a AND (b AND c).

If it's meant to represent:

NOT-a OR a OR b

then, yes, it's true no matter the values of a or b. That's because one of a or NOT-a is definitely true and TRUE OR anything is true. The associativity rules also apply here.